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I think to call this the “ultimate guide” is a bit far fetched.

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Can you explain to me why you couldn't have a low strike price for a large premium and a buy order at that strike price? If exercised you'd get to collect that premium as you sell the shares however simply buy the shares at the said price since planning on keeping them anyways. You essentially never sold but handed a free premium with no potential upside lost. Sounds way too good to be true so what am I missing?

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